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Tuesday, 24 January 2012

¿CAN ONE STILL BE CONSIDERED "GAY" IF...?


Can one still be considered "GAY" if he has NO attraction to women and is ONLY attracted to men , but he never acts on the attraction?

18 comments:

  1. Short answer: Yes.
    I was gay before I ever had any type of sex.

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  2. SCIONDRIVER: THANKS FOR THE RESPONSE.

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  3. Yes. Then it could be said that one has a homosexual nature. Doesn't matter if they act on it or not. If the attraction is there, that's their natural inclination. "Gay" wouldn't fit, because the word has a more political connotation.



    One.

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  4. You could ask the same question of a person attracted to a member of the opposite sex, if they don't act on their attraction will they still be considered straight? I think they will. The answer then to your question would also be the same.

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  5. If a person is same gender loving, the celibacy issue is mute. It is what guides and drives us, not the type of fuel, that gets us to our destination. Abstinence from anything doesn't impact on nature.

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  6. BAMA: WHAT YOU KNOW ABOUT THAT SIR? :-)

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  7. I think that one can be gay way before ever acting on it, keep in mind "We were Born this Way."

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  8. I'll have to blog about it LOL

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  9. ...I've been attracted to a few women before but never acted on it. Does that make me "straight"?

    I think sexuality is best defined with no definition at all.

    -_Cogito

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